One thing that statists (opponents of the free-market,
supporters of relatively extensive government intervention) typically are eager
to deny is that rich people have earned/deserve their money. This is because
libertarian defences of the right of rich people to collect and keep their
fortunes assumes that the riches in question were earned by serving society’s
consumers (everyone, for all intents and purposes). The more effective one has
served the consumers, the more money one makes. A problem that arises when
examining the fortunes of current rich people in the real world where a pure
free-market order is not in operation is that a lesser or greater part of many
of these fortunes were acquired through political privileges, not purely on
consumer-serving ability.
Most
libertarians do not deny this fact; some even emphasize it in order to show how
government interventions in the free-market order allow certain politically
well-connected businessmen to gain at the expense of less well-connected
businessmen and consumers. Many statists seize on this fact too though, and try
to use it to make an argument that goes something like this: ‘Rich people have
only acquired their fortunes through graft, political privileges, and other
sorts of villainy. Also, even if they seem honest now, the only reason why they
were able to amass their fortune was through the nefarious deeds of their
ancestors, who robbed the land and possessions of poor people in the past. As
such, when we propose that the rich pay a higher percentage of their income as
tax, we only intend for society to take back what these rich scoundrels and
their ancestors have taken out of society to begin with. Thus, our taxation
policy is in accordance with justice.”
There are
several serious problems with this argument, which the majority of this post
will be focused on exposing. First, while some fortunes have been acquired
primarily through political privileges and other anti-social means, to assert
that this is so for all fortunes is extravagant and inaccurate. The best way to
think about this is to abstract away from the real world and its complications
for a moment and think in terms of ideal-types. This is what the libertarian
writer Ayn Rand does in her famous, controversial novel/philosophical dialogue,
Atlas Shrugged. In it, the two main protagonists are Dagny Taggart, an
efficient, competent, and energetic female rail-road executive, and Hank
Rearden, a man who started small and rose to own the most successful steel
company in the world and even invented a new, superior kind of industrial metal
alloy. Both of them are intent upon accumulating money, but they are intent on
earning it through making their respective products the best they possibly can
be, and then selling them on the open market to willing buyers. Both of them
despise political gamesmanship, do not seek any political privileges for their
businesses, and despise those who receive such privileges. On the other hand,
two of the antagonists in the novel are James Taggart, Dagny’s Brother, and
Orren Boyle, Hank’s competitor in the steel industry. They are not very
efficient or competent businessmen, but they have good connections in
Washington, which allows them to get special privileges for their respective
businesses. They despise Dagny and Hank for being selfish, materialistic, and
overly competitive.
With these
ideal-types in place, Rand can then comment, without contradiction, on the
respective value systems and societal worth of the protagonists and the
antagonists. According to Rand, Dagny and Hank deserve their money and their
success because they achieved it by making a product which advanced the
well-being of their customers, while James and Orren do not because they
achieved it through mulcting the consumers and their more efficient
competitors. When libertarians and free-market advocates praise rich people as
having contributed a lot to society, they are referring to those like Dagny and
Hank, not those like James and Orren who would not have made any money in a
truly free-market order, they only made it through subverting that order for
their own narrow, short-term benefits. When examining the income of current
rich people in the real world, more often than not it represents a combination
of the tactics of the ‘good’ businessmen, mixed with the tactics of the ‘bad’
businessmen. While this will affect most libertarians’ evaluation of individual
businessmen, isolating the two methods of making money shows that it is
possible that, with the right institutional conditions, the people receiving
high incomes will have earned those
high incomes by serving the consumers of society.
Empirically, there is a significant
qualitative difference between how the rich in the pre-industrial era made
their money and how the rich in the industrial era did. The populace was rarely benefited, and often hurt by, the activities of rich medieval noblemen, who
acquired their wealth largely through political privileges and violence. On the
other hand, the consumers of an industrial society certainly receive important benefits from at least a significant chunk of the activities of the rich owners of
corporations who cater to the needs of the masses, corporations such as Subway, Wall Mart,
The Gap, and many more. While income gained through political privileges and violence
still exists, and grows the more important government intervention becomes in
an economic order, certainly a significantly greater proportion of the income
accruing to rich people at present was gained through serving the consumers
efficiently than was the case before the industrial era. Ignoring the
distinction between the two methods of earning money and just calling all of
the rich ‘scoundrels’ and their income ‘unearned’ is overly-simplistic and
represents an inability to think abstractly and mentally isolate the various
different phenomena that are all operating in the real world and which must,
for clarity’s sake, be considered separately.
Even if we were to unrealistically assume
that a large proportion of most fortunes today were solely due to political
privileges rather than due to serving the consumers efficiently, the conclusion
to tax the wealthy more still does not follow. What is the point of having the
government give the politically privileged rich subsidies with one hand and
take away the same amount in additional taxes with the other? Even if we could
do the impossible, and determine the exact amount of extra dollars that the
political privilege allowed certain rich people to make, and then tax them the exact
same amount extra, there is still no point. In reality, these determinations
are not attempted, with ‘rich’ people above a certain income level all paying
the same extra taxes, no matter how relevant political privileges were in the
making of their income.
Having dealt
with the current income of rich people, let us now look at the foundation of
their wealth: land and capital holdings accumulated and passed down by
ancestors. It is true that, if we look at the history of most parcels of land
in the world, we will find that at some point or other, probably multiple times, they were taken from what should have been their rightful owner by an
expropriator, who claimed it as his own by force. Does this mean that we should
consider the current private ownership of every parcel of land and natural
resource as we do a recently stolen car, that is, as illegitimate? The answer
should be a resounding ‘No’. Anglo-Saxon Common Law has a statute of
limitations for such claims to ‘stolen’ property or broken contracts for a very
good reason. A private property society cannot function if people’s rights to
own certain pieces of property are constantly called into question by the
almost inevitable discovery that acts of expropriation had occurred with
regards to that property, somewhere in the mists of history. Just as people
won’t be as incentivized to improve their property and accumulate capital if
they fear being expropriated by a government, they also won’t be as
incentivized to improve their property and accumulate capital if they fear
their property being taken by the heir of some obscure medieval peasant family
who finally found evidence to prove that that land had once rightfully belonged
to his family.
Besides
this, in a rapidly progressing commercial/industrial economy with free-market
institutions, wealth and property are constantly changing hands, tending to go
towards those best able to serve the consumers. Someone who acquires or
inherits money must invest it in those lines and businesses which he expects
will best be able to serve the consumers in order to make an income and avoid
slowly dissipating his capital through consumption. Someone who acquires or
inherits land must maintain the site and make sure that it is used in the ways
which will best serve the consumers if he hopes to get a money-income from that
land and not just use it for self-sufficient production. Those that fail in these
tasks will dissipate their capital and may have to sell their land for cash. A
good example of these phenomena occurred in England. In the Medieval and Early Modern periods, most of the land in England was 'owned' by noble families, who
had acquired it through violence or as a political privilege. With the rise of
a commercial/industrial society in England though, if the nobles wanted to
enjoy a high standard of living for the time period, they had two options: they
could continue despising business and just dissipate their capital and sell
their lands in order to continue consuming at a high level, or they could adopt
the ways of capitalistic business and try to keep a steady income flowing from
their money capital and land holdings. One can find examples of both strategies
in English history. In either case though, over the course of the nineteenth
century especially, the importance of the large noble landowner as a privileged
economic caste diminished significantly. Without any major governmental policies
of land reform/redistribution, capital and land naturally flowed to those
better able to use it to serve the consumers and do well in the new industrial
market economy. All this is to say that in a free-market, industrial economy,
the economic significance of a past act of expropriation gradually, and
sometimes quickly, loses its importance, as the expropriator or descendants of
the expropriator must learn to serve the consumers in a free-market order if
they wish to maintain their standard of living and level of wealth.
These points
should be enough to dispose of the statist argument presented at the beginning
of this post. There remains the question though: after what period of time do
we let bygones be bygones, and under what circumstances should property be
returned to its former owner who was expropriated? It should go without saying
that, as with any legal charge in a civilized legal system, any person accused
of illegitimately holding stolen property should be assumed to be innocent
unless proven guilty. The burden of proof would be on the plaintiff to produce
documents proving that the property in question had been stolen in the past. It
should also go without saying that ‘evidence’ based on ‘historical traditions
passed down orally’ should not be accepted in a court of law, no matter what
the most esteemed courts in Canada dealing with aboriginal issues claim.
That said,
if it can be sufficiently proven that the property in question was stolen in
the past, the response should depend upon the nature of the property and what
was done with it in the period since it was stolen, and on the length of time
that has elapsed since it was stolen. For instance, a situation in which the
land should probably be returned to its rightful owner is in cases of remnants
of feudal land relations that can still be found in places such as Southeast
Asia and Latin America. A feudal land relation is when a 'landlord' claims to own
a vast swath of territory through the use and threat of force, but allows his
‘tenants’ to work the land and carry on their business, as long as they give
the lord a cut. Rectifying the issue of the illegitimate land ownership of the
feudal lord is relatively simple: just give the land to the people who are
currently living on it/using it for their economic activities, and take the
feudal lord out of the picture. I should emphasize that the foregoing is not an
indictment of every landlord who rents his land to tenants, far from it. It is
only the case of feudalism where the landlord clearly obtained title through
expropriation or by purchasing it from an expropriator and is not really
contributing anything positive to the lives of his tenants. If history were
changed and feudal lords had never appeared on the scenes, the peasants and
townsmen just would have owned the plots of land they were using themselves and
little else would have changed. This is not the case, for instance, in an urban
apartment building where a landlord owns the building and charges the tenants
rent to live in the rooms. If a landlord or the person he purchased it from had not built the apartment, there
would not have been an apartment for the tenants to live in.
Besides the feudal situation, most
historical grievances related to land ownership should probably be forgotten
about, unless the expropriation was fairly recent. This is because any
inheritors of the expropriator’s land or people that he had sold the land to
would not have been the ones to commit the crime themselves and would have
assumed, probably quite reasonably, that the land was theirs to own
legitimately and that they should go about improving the land. To grab back the
land, at that point, and give the improved land to the descendants of the
person who had been expropriated in the past does not seem fair, and as
mentioned earlier, it would undermine the security of property rights necessary
for a prosperous private property society to function and progress economically
by diminishing incentives to improve land.
That being
said, there should be some measures, for land and for movable goods, to ensure
that criminals don’t benefit from their crime. If a car thief steals a car and
immediately sells it to an unknowing car dealership, the car should still be
returned to the victim and it should be up to the car dealership to try to
ensure that the thief pays them back somehow, and hopefully in the future be
more careful about what property they buy. Similarly, if a bandit gang drives
the rightful owners off a piece of land and then sells it to a corporation, as
long as the suit is brought relatively quickly before the corporation invests
tons of capital into the land, the land should be returned to its rightful
owners.
Thus, such
is the ill gotten gains problem and such is what it does and does not imply,
and what should and should not be done about it. It is an issue that should not
be ignored, but nor should it be blown out of all proportions and used to
justify expropriating wealthy people, leading the way to a system where ill
gotten gains become more and more important along with the influence of
politics in the economic sphere, that is: socialism and interventionism. Rather,
we should seek to institute a set of institutional arrangements where ill
gotten gains gradually become less and less important, that is, free-market
capitalism.
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